🩺 Child Health MCQ Test – 50 Marks
✅ You can skip questions if you want. Submit anytime to see your score out of 50.Q1. IMNCI stands for:
Explanation: IMNCI expands to Integrated Management of Newborn and Childhood Illness.
Q2. IMNCI includes which age group?
Explanation: IMNCI covers children from birth up to 59 months (0–5 years).
Q3. The first essential step after birth is:
Explanation: Immediate drying and warming help prevent hypothermia in the newborn.
Q4. Normal birth weight is:
Explanation: A normal birth weight is 2500 g or more.
Q5. Recommended vitamin K dose for a newborn is:
Explanation: A 1 mg intramuscular dose of vitamin K is given to prevent bleeding in the newborn.
Q6. Apgar score is routinely recorded at:
Explanation: Standard practice is to assess Apgar at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
Q7. Early initiation of breastfeeding should be done within:
Explanation: Breastfeeding should ideally start within the first hour of life.
Q8. Exclusive breastfeeding means giving:
Explanation: Exclusive breastfeeding means only breast milk, no other fluids or foods.
Q9. Complementary feeding should be started at:
Explanation: Complementary foods are introduced at 6 months, with continued breastfeeding.
Q10. Immunization at birth includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Explanation: DPT is not a birth dose; it starts at 6 weeks of age.
Q11. BCG vaccine is administered by which route?
Explanation: BCG is given intradermally, usually over the left upper arm.
Q12. BCG scar usually appears after:
Explanation: A small scar typically develops 3–6 weeks after BCG vaccination.
Q13. OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine) is:
Explanation: OPV is a live attenuated poliovirus vaccine given orally.
Q14. First measles/MR dose is given at:
Explanation: The first MR (or measles) dose is scheduled at 9 months of age.
Q15. Pentavalent vaccine protects against:
Explanation: Pentavalent vaccine combines DPT, Hepatitis B and Hib antigens.
Q16. The usual schedule for pentavalent vaccine is at:
Explanation: In UIP, pentavalent is given at 6, 10 and 14 weeks.
Q17. First dose of vitamin A prophylaxis is given at:
Explanation: The first dose of vitamin A is given at 9 months along with MR.
Q18. Severe acute malnutrition (SAM) is indicated by MUAC:
Explanation: MUAC < 11.5 cm indicates severe acute malnutrition.
Q19. Normal respiratory rate in an infant (<1 year) is less than:
Explanation: More than 50/min in an infant is considered fast breathing.
Q20. Fast breathing in a child aged 2–12 months is defined as respiratory rate:
Explanation: For age 2–12 months, ≥50 breaths/min is fast breathing.
Q21. Fast breathing in a child aged 1–5 years is defined as respiratory rate:
Explanation: For 1–5 years, ≥40 breaths/min is considered fast breathing.
Q22. According to IMNCI, diarrhea is defined as:
Explanation: Diarrhea is three or more loose or watery stools in 24 hours.
Q23. Treatment of some dehydration due to diarrhea is mainly:
Explanation: Plan B (some dehydration) is managed primarily with ORS.
Q24. Recommended zinc dose in a child with diarrhea is:
Explanation: Zinc is given at 20 mg/day (10 mg/day <6 months).
Q25. Severe dehydration in a child is treated with:
Explanation: Plan C uses rapid IV fluids for severe dehydration.
Q26. Most common bacterial cause of pneumonia in children is:
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of childhood pneumonia.
Q27. Most common cause of under-five mortality globally is:
Explanation: Pneumonia remains a major cause of under-five mortality.
Q28. Growth in a child is mainly assessed by:
Explanation: Growth refers to physical changes measured by height and weight.
Q29. Development in a child is measured primarily by:
Explanation: Development is assessed via motor, language and social milestones.
Q30. Birth weight usually doubles by:
Explanation: Birth weight typically doubles by about 5–6 months.
Q31. Birth weight typically triples by:
Explanation: By one year, the baby’s weight is about three times the birth weight.
Q32. Birth weight usually becomes four times by:
Explanation: At around 2 years, weight is about four times birth weight.
Q33. Social smile is usually seen at:
Explanation: Social smile commonly appears around 6 weeks of age.
Q34. Neck holding (good head control) is seen at about:
Explanation: By 3 months, most infants can hold their head steadily.
Q35. Sitting without support is usually achieved at:
Explanation: Children generally sit without support by around 8–9 months.
Q36. Walking independently is expected at:
Explanation: Most children walk independently between 12 and 15 months.
Q37. First tooth eruption usually occurs at:
Explanation: The first primary teeth usually appear around 6 months.
Q38. Which is considered the first immunization at birth?
Explanation: BCG is one of the vaccines routinely given at birth.
Q39. Delayed developmental milestones may indicate:
Explanation: Persistent delay in milestones suggests possible developmental delay.
Q40. Which of the following is a danger sign in a sick child?
Explanation: Lethargy or unconsciousness is a key danger sign.
Q41. A sign of severe pneumonia in a child is:
Explanation: Chest indrawing with breathing difficulty indicates severe pneumonia.
Q42. Vaccine given routinely at 9 months of age is:
Explanation: The first MR dose is scheduled at 9 months under UIP.
Q43. Khuski (measles) is caused by:
Explanation: Measles is caused by a paramyxovirus.
Q44. Rotavirus vaccine protects mainly against:
Explanation: Rotavirus vaccine helps prevent severe dehydrating diarrhea.
Q45. JE vaccine protects against:
Explanation: JE vaccine prevents Japanese encephalitis, a mosquito-borne viral illness.
Q46. Major tool used in polio eradication is:
Explanation: Mass OPV immunization campaigns (Pulse Polio) were key to polio eradication.
Q47. A danger sign in a newborn is:
Explanation: Poor or difficult feeding in a newborn is a serious warning sign.
Q48. Hypothermia in a newborn is defined as temperature:
Explanation: Temperature below 36.5°C in a newborn indicates cold stress/hypothermia.
Q49. Skin-to-skin contact of the newborn with mother immediately after birth is called:
Explanation: Continuous skin-to-skin contact with the mother is known as KMC.
Q50. RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram) screens children for:
Explanation: RBSK targets early detection of 4 Ds in children.